In the following topology:
zbridgeprivate and zbridgepublic have no ID (or ID zero) set. Does that mean they're in the same broadcast domain even if there's no uplink to bind them to the "physical" infrastructure where they couldn't escape this?
From the docs I know this is a valid design, I just don't know the what's interconnectivity situation. 🙂 Or if it would apply to vDSes, bc there's basically no mention of it. For instance, in a vDS with no uplinks, would a distributed port group work in another host--this time I mean the same port group not only the VLAN(s) it carries.
Connect a VM to “private” and another VM to “public”, they will be in the same broadcast domain as one another.
Their traffic cannot leave the physical host as their switch has no uplink.
What is your use case, or the behaviour you are trying to achieve?