I am trying to figure out how port groups work and have questions about the following configuration even though it may deviate from best practices:
Consider a vswitch with two uplinks to the physical nics pnc1 and pnc2
On this vswitch consider two port groups pg1 and pg2 where
pg1 is assigned vlan id 5 and tied to physical nic pnic1 and
pg2 is assigned vlan id 5 and tied to physical nic pnic2
Are the following assumptions right?:
a virtual machine on pg1 can directly communicate with a virtual machine on pg2 without going through the uplinks
packets that are sent from a virtual machine on pg1 to a resource that is not on pg1 or pg2 will necessarily go through pnic1 and never through pnic2
(also assuming that no virtual machine on pg2 is serving as a gateway)
Thanks,
Rich
